IIBM – Journalistic Ethics Answer sheet

IIBM – Journalistic Ethics Answer sheet

 Q1. The correspondence or disquotational theory of truth is a ____________ theory.

1. Formal
2. Informal
3. Positive
4. Negative

Q2. The use of another person‟s thinking or writing without explicit acknowledgment of its source is known as

1. Credibility
2. Originality
3. Plagiarism

d . Source

Q3. The effort to bridge the fact-value gap or blur the distinction between facts & values is referred to as the

1. Naturalistic Fallacy
2. Principia Ethic

c . Pervasive division

1. None

Q4. According to moral philosophers, the relationship between facts& values is one

1. Aesthetic Facts
2. Artistic Facts
3. Transcend Facts
4. None

Q5. Out of the following falsehoods in news reporting are the work of rogue reporters whose professional misconduct is morally intolerable.

1. Countless Falsehood
2. Deliberate Falsehood
3. Inadvertent Falsehood
4. Erroneous Falsehood

State True/False:

Q6. The guidance needed for making correct relevance judgments is common sense.

Q7. The remote control device on a modern television is a type of behavioral analyst‟\’s dream which is now come true.

Q8. Advertisers are journalists and so can be held responsible for adhering to the principles of journalistic ethics.

Q9. A totalitarian government is first & foremost a regime that takes control of every aspect of the news media.

Q10. It is important for a theoretical ethical philosopher to distinguish between moral & prudential considerations.

Part Two:

Q1. What are the principles for controlling censorship?

Q2. What is Moral and prudential Reasoning?

Q3. List the Guidelines for appeals to confidentiality.

Q4. Define the legal and moral rights of journalists.

Q5. Would the medical emergency described warrant disclosing the identity of a confidential informant? Why or why not?

Q6. What criteria might reasonably be applied to decide what kind or what scope of a potential emergency justifies disclosing a confidential informant\’s identity? How can we prevent the acknowledgment of such possibilities from degenerating into a slippery slope, the outcome of which is to undermine the use of any confidential informants?

Q7. What were the legal issues involved in this interesting case? How, if at all, do they relate to the morality of respect for privacy by journalists?

Q8. Do you agree with the OK? Solicitors‟ position that the second decision in this case deprives journalists of protection for their prior agreements to exclusive publication rights? What is the exact legal principle by which the court reached its judgment, as reflected in The Guardian report? Can it be justified on grounds of professional journalistic ethics? If so, how? If not, why not?

Q9. What is the significance for professional journalists and journalistic ethics of evaluations of the relative freedom of the press in different societies

Q10. Define Privacy in a public world. Explain the constitutional basis for the right to privacy.

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IIBM – ISO 14001 2004 Answer sheet

Q1. The ISO 14001 EMS standard only specifies

1. a) The structure of EMS
2. b) The working of EMS
3. c) The behavior of EMS
4. d) None

Q2. Which clause addresses the general requirements of an Environment Management System?

1. a) Clause 4.1
2. b) Clause 4.2
3. c) Clause 4.3
4. d) Clause 4.5

Q3. The ISO 14001 structure, like classic quality management systems, is based on

1. a) Plan – Check – Do – Act cycle
2. b) Check – Plan – Do – Act cycle
3. c) Do – Plan – Check – Act cycle
4. d) Plan – Do – Check – Act cycle

Q4. An environmental system

1. a) Serves as a tool to improve environmental performance
2. b) Provides a systematic way of managing an organization’s environmental affairs
3. c) Focuses on continual improvement of the system
4. d) All above

Q5. Clause 4.5 of ISO 14001:2004 – …………………… corresponds to the check stage of the PDCA cycle.

1. a) Planning
2. b) Checking
3. c) Verifying
4. d) None

Q6. A process of enhancing the environmental management system to achieve improvement is overall environmental performance in line with the organization’s environmental policy is called

1. a) Environment
2. b) Continual Improvement
3. c) Prevention of Pollution
4. d) Environmental Aspect

Q7. Which clause states that ‘the organization shall define and document the scope of its environmental management system’?

1. a) Clause 4.5
2. b) Clause 4.3
3. c) Clause 4.1
4. d) Clause 4.2

Q8. Top managers demonstrate their commitment by articulating the …………………… values.

1. a) Written values
2. b) Environmental values
3. c) Physical values
4. d) Numeric values

Q9. Regarding ‘Prevention of Pollution’ the ISO 14001: 2004 definition incorporates the concept of

1. a) End – of – pipe
2. b) End–of–process
3. c) Reduce the creation of pollutants
4. d) Eliminate waste at source

Q10. The environment policy is a statement of intention. It must be

1. a) Documented
2. b) Implemented
3. c) Maintained
4. d) All above

Q11. Planning is covered by

1. a) Clause 4.1
2. b) Clause 4.2
3. c) Clause 4.4
4. d) Clause 4.3

Q12. Environmental aspects must be identified only for those activities products, and services that fall within the …………………….

1. a) Undefined scope
2. b) Defined scope
3. c) Any scope
4. d) Predefined procedure

Q13. The most typical approach to the identification of environmental aspects involves

1. a) Examination of individual process
2. b) Investigate the complete process
3. c) Audition of environmental policy
4. d) None

Q14. Environmental impacts can be

1. a) Acute
2. b) Chronic
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q15. Which clause of ISO 14001:2004 states that, ‘within the defined scope of its environmental management system, the environmental policy is available to the public’?

1. a) Clause 4.2
2. b) Clause 4.2.5
3. c) Clause 4.3.1
4. d) Clause 4.5

Q16. If an organization’s environmental management system is to be effective, it must eliminate

1. a) Beneficial environmental effects
2. b) Wholly environmental effects
3. c) Partially environmental effects
4. d) Adverse environmental effects

Q17. Environmental Impact states that

1. a) Any change to the process
2. b) Effect of the climate
3. c) Any change to the environment
4. d) Change the overall management system

Q18. Clause, which focuses on activities intended to improve the environmental management system, is

1. a) Clause 4.4.4
2. b) Clause 4.5
3. c) Clause 4.6
4. d) Clause 4.3

Q19. The environmental policy statement contains language that only commits to compliance with

1. a) Legal requirements
2. b) Other requirements
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q20. Who is responsible for identifying and documenting the legal & other requirements that apply to the unit’s environmental respects & operations?

1. a) ISO 14001 coordinator
2. b) Environmental manager
3. c) DNC staff
4. d) All above

Q21. The legal & other requirements that may apply to a unit’s environmental aspects may include

1. a) National and international legal requirements
2. b) Local governmental legal requirements
3. c) ISO 14001: 2004
4. d) All above

Q22. Clause, which mandates periodic evaluation to see whether an organization complies with all identified legal requirements, is

1. a) Clause 4.5.6
2. b) Clause 4.5.2
3. c) Clause 4.3.2
4. d) Clause 4.1

Q23. The framework for setting and receiving environmental objectives & targets is provided by

1. a) Environmental Management System
2. b) Environmental Manager
3. c) ISO 14001:2004
4. d) Environmental Policy

Q24. Examples of objectives that reflect the policy to conserve “natural resources” are

1. a) Reduce water use
2. b) Reduce energy use
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q25. Environmental targets describe ……………….. will be to achieve stated objectives.

1. a) What
2. b) How much
3. c) Why
4. d) When

Q26. If there is a technology that could reduce a significant impact by 50%, the organization discovers that the purchasing price is equal to its entire operating budget. Then which factor should be concluded by the organization that precludes it from purchasing the technology?

1. a) Financial requirements
2. b) Legal requirements
3. c) Technological options
4. d) Operational requirements

Q27. In ISO 14001:2004, significant environmental aspects or impacts are the focus of

1. a) 4.2a clause
2. b) 4.3.2 clause
3. c) 4.4.2 clause
4. d) All above

Q28. An organization must establish objectives & targets related to

1. a) Regulatory compliance
2. b) Continual improvement
3. c) Compliance with other voluntary required
4. d) All above

Q29. A component, which must be determined by the organization in which specific objectives & targets are to be achieved, is

1. a) Policy
2. b) System
3. c) Time frame
4. d) Management

Q30. The single most critical resource, at various levels of an organization, is

1. a) Lack of money
2. b) Availability of employees
3. c) Bad goodwill
4. d) Labor

Q31. Within the context of an environmental management system, authority pertains to

1. a) Influence
2. b) Power
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q32. The environmental policy statement contains language that commits to compliance with legal & other requirements. This commitment is supported by

1. a) Clause 4.3.1
2. b) Clause 4.3.2
3. c) Clause 4.3.5
4. d) Clause 4.4.1

Q33. Nonconformity as “non – fulfillment of a requirement” is defined in

1. a) Section 3.17
2. b) Section 3.16
3. c) Section 3.15
4. d) Section 2.17

Q34. In ISO 14001:2004 clause 4.6 is related to

1. a) Internal audit
2. b) Monitoring & measurement
3. c) Evaluation of compliance
4. d) Management review

Q35. In any evaluation of worker competence, which may include

1. a) Temporary workers
2. b) Contractors
3. c) Other working on behalf of an organization
4. d) All above

Q36. Training needs must be identified for workers who are required to hold a

1. a) Worker label
2. b) Award
3. c) License
4. d) Any credential

Q37. Under which section an interested party is defined as a “person or group concerned with or affected by the environmental performance of an organization”?

1. a) Section 2.11
2. b) Section 4.12
3. c) Section 3.13
4. d) Section 1.11

Q38. ISO Awareness Training is recorded through various means & it is verified by

1. a) EMS Internal audits
2. b) Operational Control
3. c) Control of Records
4. d) ISO 14001 Coordinator

Q39. Which clause confirmed an environmental management system audit is neither an environmental performance audit nor a regulatory compliance audit?

1. a) Clause 4.5.1
2. b) Clause 4.5.2
3. c) Clause 4.5.3
4. d) Both (a) & (b)

Q40. Sharing of information and exchange of ideas among all organizational functions and levels is referred to as

1. a) Transaction
2. b) Communication
3. c) Deal
4. d) Transmission

Q41. About its environmental aspects and environmental management system, the organization shall establish & maintain …………………………… between the various levels & functions of the organization.

1. a) External communication
2. b) Internal communication
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q42. Clause, which states that responsibility must be defined, documented, & communicated, is

1. a) Clause 4.4.1
2. b) Clause 4.2.3
3. c) Clause 4.1.4
4. d) Clause 4.3.2

Q43. If an organization provides written information to its all employees, then it is

1. a) Communicating
2. b) Conferencing
3. c) Advertising
4. d) Distribution of information

Q44. ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms ‘levels’ and ‘function’. What does the ‘function’ word mean?

1. a) A group of members
2. b) A program organized at the last of the year
3. c) A group of related actions that contribute to a larger accomplishment
4. d) A position of rank

Q45. An example of the external party for an organization could be

1. a) Regulatory agencies
2. b) Community residents
3. c) Civic associations
4. d) All above

Q46. The environmental management system documentation shall include

1. a) The environmental policy
2. b) Objectives
3. c) Targets
4. d) All above

Q47. To establish an effective procedure, it is necessary to understand what is meant by the term communication, which is defined in

1. a) Clause 4.3.4
2. b) Clause 4.4.3
3. c) Clause 4.1.4
4. d) Clause 4.3.2

Q48. An umbrella document, often in the form of a manual, that provides an overview of the EMS & describes how each element of ISO 14001: 2004 is being achieved

1. a) System description
2. b) Procedure
3. c) Work instructions
4. d) Records

Q49. Work instructions provide

1. a) Detailed information for group
2. b) Information on EMS
3. c) Relevant data
4. d) Detailed information for individuals

Q50. A document explains

1. a) What must be done
2. b) Format of the work
3. c) How should it be done
4. d) When it should it be done

Q51. ISO 14001:2004 states all documents required by the standard must be controlled which include

1. a) Environmental policy
2. b) Roles, responsibilities & authorities
3. c) Operational control procedures
4. d) All above

Q52. Documents, those created by others brought into an organization for some purpose, are  subject to somewhat different controls, are

1. a) Internal documents
2. b) External documents
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q53. Section, which defines a document as “information and its supporting medium,” is

1. a) Section 3.11
2. b) Section 2.10
3. c) Section 3.5
4. d) Section 3.4

Q54. Documents, which always reflect the current version because there is only one “location” (in the computer) at which documents are available and are increasingly used by organizations, are

1. a) Internal documents
2. b) External documents
3. c) Electronic documents
4. d) All above

Q55. A document, that is current at the time of issuance and will be updated as revisions are made, is called

1. a) Master lists
2. b) Controlled copy
3. c) Uncontrolled copy
4. d) Validation form

Q56. If the copies of EMS are downloaded, printed, and/or saved electronically, but they are considered

1. a) Uncontrolled
2. b) Controlled
3. c) Current
4. d) None

Q57. The approaches selected by an organization to control its operations should reflect

1. a) The nature of the aspect of the interest
2. b) The media affected by its interest
3. c) The purpose of the control
4. d) All above

Q58. The operations of an organization are affected by its

1. a) Employees
2. b) Suppliers
3. c) Contractors
4. d) All above

Q59. By creating a new procedure, an organization can use its existing communication procedure to fulfill the requirements, imposed by

1. a) Clause 4.5
2. b) Clause 4.3.2
3. c) Clause 4.4.3
4. d) Clause 4.1.4

Q60. When universal waste & recyclable material are collected, and stored, it is managed for disposal / recycling, at

1. a) Dustbin
2. b) Recycling center
3. c) Organization
4. d) Anywhere

Q61. Evaluation of environmental impacts should consider

1. a) Accidental emission to the air
2. b) Accidental discharges to the water
3. c) Accidental discharges to the land
4. d) All above

Q62. A database, which includes information used to determine the root cause of the incident & specifies corrective/preventive actions to prevent recurrence of the incident, is

1. a) Environmental Management System
2. b) Environmental Incident Reporting System
3. c) Integrated Contingency System
4. d) None

Q63. Clause 4.4.7 is related to

1. a) Emergency preparedness & response
2. b) Monitoring & measuring
3. c) Operational control
4. d) Control of documents

Q64. Regarding environmental incidents and emergencies, all employees are trained to report environmental incidents & emergencies to

1. a) The Environmental Manager
2. b) Technical Service Manager
3. c) Contractor
4. d) Load Dispatcher

Q65. An organization, for every significant environmental impact, must decide

1. a) What to measure
2. b) How to measure
3. c) When to measure
4. d) All above

Q66. Which scales of measurement are used to identify categories of objects or events?

1. a) Nominal scales
2. b) Ordinal scales
3. c) Interval scales
4. d) Ratio scales

Q67. If adverse environmental impacts are labeled as “high – medium – low” as rated “3 – 2 – 1”, then which scale would be useful to assign values that represent things that are better or worse in comparison to others?

1. a) Nominal scales
2. b) Ordinal scales
3. c) Interval scales
4. d) Ratio scales

Q68. Whatever type of measure is selected, that must be

1. a) Reliable
2. b) Valid
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q69. Documents that the organization feels are necessary to ensure effective operation & control of processes related to its significant environmental aspects, are required by

1. a) Clause 4.1.1
2. b) Clause 4.2.2
3. c) Clause 4.3.3
4. d) Clause 4.4.4

Q70. Data, which inform an organization whether procedures are being followed & whether they are effective in managing environmental aspects & controlling related environmental impacts.

1. a) Data obtained from ICP
2. b) Data obtained from EMS
3. c) Data obtained through the measurement techniques
4. d) Data obtained through the measurement & monitoring techniques

Q71. For ISO 14001 registration, an organization must provide evidence of

1. a) A procedure for evaluating legal compliance
2. b) Compliance review by management
3. c) Corrective action for any non-compliance
4. d) All above

Q72. If the organization’s ……………………………… has not identified the noncompliance, the registrar audit team will ascertain whether the organization has identified & has access to its legal & other requirements.

1. a) Internal audits
2. b) External audit
3. c) Registration audit
4. d) None

Q73. Who will first attempt to determine whether the audited organization’s internal audit team identified the same noncompliance?

1. a) Audit team
2. b) Manager
3. c) Registrar Audit Team
4. d) Auditor

Q74. If the organization has identified the requirement with which it fails to comply, the registrar audit team will question, that

1. a) Why evaluation of compliance did not reveal this efficiency
2. b) Why evaluation of compliance is not suitable
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q75. Clause, which says that ‘the organization shall keep records of the results of the periodic evaluation, is

1. a) Clause 4.5.2.1
2. b) Clause 4.5.2.2
3. c) Clause 4.4.2
4. d) Clause 4.4.3

Q76. Who is responsible for the scheduling & completion of quarterly audits of objectives & targets & periodic audits of selective environmental compliance issues?

1. a) Technical Services Manager
2. b) Satellite point Manager
3. c) EMS Manager
4. d) ISO 14001 Coordinator

Q77. Preventive action is defined as

1. a) Action to eliminate the causing of a potential nonconformity
2. b) Action to eliminate the cause of a potential conformity
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q78. Identification of nonconformities tends to be considered in conjunction with

1. a) Environmental Management System
2. b) EMS Audits
3. c) List of non-conformities
4. d) None

Q79. An organization must take action to mitigate environmental harm that already resulted from the

1. a) Conformity
2. b) Mistake
3. c) Nonconformity
4. d) Process

Q80. When corrective or preventive action is taken, the …………………….. will review the action at an appropriate time to determine the results of the action.

1. a) Technical Services Manager
2. b) ISO 14001 Coordinator
3. c) Suppliers
4. d) Environmental Manager/ Designee

Q81. Prevention action is defined as “action to eliminate the cause of a potential nonconformity” in the section

1. a) Section 3.17
2. b) Section 3.15
3. c) Section 3.3
4. d) None

Q82. ……………………. Provide information that confirms the occurrence of activities or verifies performance relative to a fixed or recommended standard.

1. a) Data
2. b) Files
3. c) Records
4. d) Diaries

Q83. The ISO 14001:2004 states explicitly that records must be kept

1. a) Compliance, training & awareness
2. b) Monitoring & measurement
3. c) Internal audit
4. d) All above

Q84. Internal audit is defined in

1. a) Clause 4.3.1
2. b) Clause 4.5.5
3. c) Clause 4.4.1
4. d) Clause 4.4.3

Q85. Records should be in ink, rather than pencil, to prevent

1. a) Smudging
2. b) Darkness
3. c) Readability

Q86. The linkage between an activity and an associated record should be clear, this feature of the record is known as

1. a) Identifiable
2. b) Legible
3. c) Traceable
4. d) All above

Q87. Which section defines an auditor as a “person with the competence to conduct an audit”?

1. a) Section 3.14
2. b) Section 3.17
3. c) Section 3.1
4. d) Section 3.4

Q88. Any record, electronic or hard copy, identified on the environmental records retention schedule that demonstrates conformance with EMS & legal & other requirements, is known as

1. a) Environmental record
2. b) Environmental aspect
3. c) Information
4. d) Document

Q89. The ……………….. is used to determine if it is time to destroy an environmental record.

1. a) EMS List
2. b) Employee’s Detail List
3. c) Records Retention List
4. d) None

Q90. An environmental management system audit is

1. a) Environmental performance audit
2. b) Regulatory Compliance Audit
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q91. An EMS audit verifies that appropriate procedures are in place & functioning to ensure conformity with

1. a) ISO 14001: 2004
2. b) An organization’s document
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q92. The internal audit procedure must address

1. a) Responsibilities
2. b) Audit Criteria
3. c) Frequency
4. d) All above

Q93. Smaller organizations may be unable to dedicate the resources required for a sufficient no. of auditors. In such a circumstance, an organization might borrow auditors from

1. a) Corporate Headquarters
2. b) Consortia
3. c) Consulting firms
4. d) Sister facilities

Q94. Information that is verifiable & is based on facts obtained through observation measurement, testing, or other means, is

1. a) Nonconformance
2. b) Conformance
3. c) Objective evidence
4. d) None

Q95. Input to management review shall include

1. a) Results of internal audits
2. b) Communication(s) from external interested parties, including complaints
3. c) Status of corrective & preventive actions
4. d) All above

Q96. Management review should be viewed as

1. a) Strategic
2. b) Potential
3. c) Tactical in Nature
4. d) None

Q97. Decision–makers, who contribute to the management review process & provide the authority & resources to address recommended improvements, are

1. a) Managers
2. b) Employees
3. c) Contractors
4. d) Executives

Q98. The reason given by SMEs for implementing ISO 14001 is

1. a) Customer requirements
2. b) Continuous improvement or environmental performance
3. c) Improved regulatory compliance
4. d) All above

Q99. Small organizations, those with one to five employees, sometimes referred to as

1. a) Medium enterprises
2. b) Microenterprises
3. c) Mini enterprises
4. d) Super enterprises

Q100. The continual improvement as a “recurring process of enhancing the environmental management system to achieve improvements in overall environmental performance consistent with the organization’s environment policy”, is defined by

1. a) Section 3.1
2. b) Section 3.14
3. c) Section 3.17
4. d) Section 3.2

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Whether in MBA, EMBA, GMS, DMS, or any other programs offered at IIBM Institute (IIBM Institute of Business Management), our team is equipped to provide expert guidance and meticulously crafted solutions. We prioritize accuracy, originality, and timely delivery; ensuring students receive the necessary assistance to excel academically.

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IIBM – ISO 9001 2008 Answer sheet

IIBM – ISO 9001 2008 Answer sheet

Multiple Choices :

Q1. A desired result is achieved more efficiently when activities & related resources are managed as a

1. a) Program
2. b) Process
3. c) Aim
4. d) Project

Q2. An advantage of the process approach is

1. a) Internal working
2. b) External management
3. c) Ongoing control
4. d) None

Q3. A quality management system confirmed to ISO 9001:2008 is aimed to achieve

1. a) Minimum quality
2. b) Best quality
3. c) Maximum profit
4. d) Customer satisfaction

Q4. If exclusions are not limited to requirements with clause 7, then which action is taken against claims of confirmed

1. a) Claims of conformity to this international standard are not acceptable
2. b) Claims of conformity to this international standard are acceptable
3. c) Modify those exclusions
4. d) None

Q5. Whenever the term “product” is used, it can also mean

1. a) Cost
2. b) Quality
3. c) Profit
4. d) Service

Q6. A process that the organization needs for its quality management system and which the organization chooses to have performed by an external party, is

1. a) Outsourced process
2. b) Internal process
3. c) External process
4. d) None

Q7. To determine how all of the processes relate to each other, the process must be

1. a) Mapped
2. b) Flowcharted
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None

Q8. The term “quality” can be used with adjectives such as

1. a) Poor
2. b) Good
3. c) Excellent
4. d) All above

Q9. Which clause requires the organization to identify and prepare documents necessary for effective planning, operation, and control of its processes?

1. a) Clause 3.2
2. b) Clause 1.4
3. c) Clause 4.2.1d
4. d) Clause 2.4e

Q10. There is no requirement to create a documented procedure for describing the process of creating a quality policy in

1. a) Clause 4.2.3
2. b) Clause 8.5.2
3. c) Clause 5.3
4. d) Clause 7.1

Q11. The extent of quality management system documentation dependent on the

1. a) Size & type of organization
2. b) Complexity & interaction of the organization’s process
3. c) Competency of the organization’s people
4. d) All above

Q12. According to clause 3.7.2, the document is defined as

1. a) Information and supporting medium
2. b) Product
3. c) Report
4. d) Data

Q13. Top management is required to ensure that customer requirements are

1. a) Determined
2. b) Understood
3. c) Met
4. d) All above

Q14. According to clause 3.3.5, the “customer” term is defined as

1. a) Organization or person that receives product
2. b) A person who sells a product
3. c) Purchaser
4. d) None

Q15. Clause, which requires that top management establish the quality policy is

1. a) Clause 5.3
2. b) Clause 5.1
3. c) Clause 3.2
4. d) Clause 4.3

Q16. Once the policy is established the organization must _________________ it.

1. a) Deploy
2. b) Implement
3. c) Recreate
4. d) Verify

Q17. The quality policy describes the overall interactions and direction of an organization related to quality as formally expressed by top management. This definition is defined by

1. a) Clause 3.2.4
2. b) Clause 3.3.1
3. c) Clause 3.1.1
4. d) Clause 3.2.7

Q18. Clause, which requires management of change so that the integrity of the quality management system is maintained when the system is changing, is

1. a) Clause 3.2.4
2. b) Clause 5.4.2
3. c) Clause 3.2.1
4. d) Clause 4.5.3

Q19. According to clause 5.2, who is responsible for ensuring that customer requirements are determined and met to enhance customer satisfaction?

1. a) Top management
2. b) Employees of the organization
3. c) Low-level manager
4. d) None

Q20. An activity defined in clause 3.8.7 undertaken to determine the suitability, adequacy & effectiveness of the subject matter to achieve the established objective, is

1. a) Process
2. b) Procedure
3. c) Review
4. d) Requirement

Q21. Clause, which requires that personnel are competent, is

1. a) Clause 6.2.4
2. b) Clause 6.2.1
3. c) Clause 5.2.3
4. d) Clause 6.5

Q22. According to clause 3.1.6, competency is defined as

1. a) Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills
2. b) To compare with other organization
3. c) Improvement in quality
4. d) None

Q23. The records that are created by the activities to ensure competency may need to be enrolled per clause 4.2.2, which is related to

1. a) Control of documents
2. b) Control of records
3. c) Quality Management System
4. d) Monitoring & Measurement

Q24. The organization needs to identify what classroom training, seminars, on-the-job, or other training is necessary so that

1. a) Top managers involved in Quality Management Systems are competent
2. b) Low-level managers involved in Quality Management Systems are competent
3. c) Every employee involved in the Quality Management System is competent
4. d) All above

Q25. From the following in which part it is common practice to conduct training evaluation?

1. a) Evaluation of the training immediately upon completion
2. b) Evaluation of the training received several weeks after the training
3. c) Evaluation of the skills developed several months after the training
4. d) All above

Q26. Which clause defines the infrastructure as a system of facilities, equipment & services needed for the operation of an organization?

1. a) Clause 3.6.1
2. b) Clause 3.3.3
3. c) Clause 3.3.1
4. d) Clause 3.3.2

Q27. The work environment of an organization can be considered to be a combination of

1. a) Internal & external events
2. b) Human & process
3. c) Customers & consumers
4. d) Human & physical factors

Q28. Which physical factor can affect the work environment?

1. a) Heat
2. b) Hygiene
3. c) Humidity
4. d) All above

Q29. From the following which clause provides the essence of the use of the process approach?

1. a) Clause 4.1
2. b) Clause 8.1
3. c) Clause 7.1
4. d) All above

Q30. According to clause 3.4.2, the product is defined as

1. a) Result of a process
2. b) A service
3. c) S

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IIBM Answer sheets, academic support

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IIBM Meerut

IIBM Patna

IIBM Guwahati

IIBM Pune

IIBM Bangalore

At Global Study Solutions, we take immense pride in our ability to offer specialized support to students pursuing various programs at IIBM Institute (IIBM Institute of Business Management). Our dedicated team comprises experienced professionals who excel in crafting precise and well-researched solutions for assignments and case studies across different disciplines and courses.

Our commitment to aiding students in achieving academic success aligns perfectly with the educational standards upheld by IIBM Institute (IIBM Institute of Business Management). We understand the importance of delivering high-quality, customized solutions that meet the unique requirements of assignments and case studies within the institute\’s curriculum.

Whether in MBA, EMBA, GMS, DMS, or any other programs offered at IIBM Institute (IIBM Institute of Business Management), our team is equipped to provide expert guidance and meticulously crafted solutions. We prioritize accuracy, originality, and timely delivery; ensuring students receive the necessary assistance to excel academically.

We are dedicated to fostering an environment of academic excellence and providing dependable support to the esteemed students of IIBM Institute.

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IIBM Institute (IIBM Institute of Business Management).  Assignments, solved papers, and study materials are available through our academic writing services.

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Our specialized academic writing support simplifies access to IIBM Institute question papers and model answers.

Need expert guidance for your IIBM Institute assessments? Our service offers comprehensive solutions for students seeking assistance.

Our academic writing services ensure precise and high-quality answers for IIBM Institute assignments, aiding students in their educational journey.

Academic writing professionals play a crucial role in assisting students with their university assignments, striving to achieve several key goals:

Quality Assurance: Their primary aim is to deliver high-quality content that meets academic standards and fulfills the requirements of the university assignments. This involves thorough research, proper structuring, and adherence to guidelines provided by the educational institution.

Originality and Plagiarism-Free Content: Professionals in this field emphasize originality by creating authentic content free from plagiarism. To maintain academic integrity, they ensure that all information is appropriately cited and referenced.

Meeting Deadlines: Timely submission is a significant goal for academic writing professionals. They work within specified deadlines to provide students with completed assignments, enabling them to submit their work punctually.

Clear and Coherent Communication: Professionals strive to convey complex ideas in a clear, coherent, and academically appropriate manner. They focus on effective communication to ensure the content is easily understandable to the target audience.

Supporting Learning and Comprehension: Beyond completing assignments, academic writing professionals aim to support students\’ learning by providing explanations, analysis, and additional resources that help students grasp the subject matter more comprehensively.

Customization and Client Satisfaction: They tailor their services to individual student needs, providing personalized assistance and ensuring client satisfaction by addressing specific requirements and preferences.

Continuous Improvement: Academic writing professionals continuously update their knowledge base, research techniques, and writing skills to adapt to evolving academic standards and deliver the best possible support to students.